1NT is 15-17.
Dbl is Stayman.
What do your calls mean here?
X is business or negative, however you play 1NT-(
***Bastard partner! 4 good hearts forcing looking for
How about this auction:
What should bids mean? I think pass should be
non-forcing; we may have been running. I have
no idea about
There are two general approaches the panelists
use. (1) everything is the same as if they had
passed, and (2) now that they bid, we have to be
able to bid
Assign the blame for missing the laydown grand.
I think the auction should go
East 100%, since
If so over
If East were to start with a splinter and West used keycard
Perhaps if East starts with a strong jump shift, as might be my choice...
If this is a long-standing partnership with extensive methods, I give East 100% for 2NT. Otherwise, 50/50 as East's auction was intelligent and well planned yet insufficient.
On the actual auction, I think West did a good job of showing his hand
and his extra values. I don't think West can distinguish whether East
So, I think the blame lies with East. He chose the 2NT bid, which tends to shows a more balanced raise that might entertain NT, since he could have splintered, or SJSed). In any event, he asserted captaincy of the auction with his first bid.
The trick to getting to the grand and knowing it is
cold is to have opener (West) Blackwood after finding
out about the
Three sequences might work to get opener to bid RKC.
Possible Sequence One:
Possible Sequence Two:
Possible Sequence Three:
|2NT (puppet)|| |
[There is a stronger splinter:
On the actual hand West might bid the grand thinking
that it might not be any worse than finding the
Thus, some blame to both players, but still, no bid was ridiculous.
This hand shouldn't splinter because there's no last train available, so we'll be guessing about partner's hand and end up simply making a general grand slam try which partner will reject. If we splinter, then key card and bid 5NT, partner may be able to go all the way, but the odds on that seem slim. Remember, he thinks we have only four trumps; if he has four diamonds, trying to ruff three in dummy will pose enough handling problems that he'll not bid a grand.
Starting with a SJS is better because we can get our
shortness shown lower, except that I play compressed
jump shifts, so we'd still be at the 4-level (
I think it's reasonable simply to take control and force partner to cue bid; in fact, I think it's substantially the best approach with the hand. The hope is to find out enough about partner's hand that we can make a good decision to bid a grand.
Frivolous 3NT would have been nice. If I were confident
that we had that available, I'd've just bid
So how about the last round of the auction? What is
the meaning of
Note that I think the final grand slam tries are "asking," not "showing." When we run out of room, the player who has taken captaincy of the auction (Jacoby 2NT does that until further notice) needs to be able to ask specific questions, not show one more card to hope partner can bid the grand. So he leaves room for partner to make the bid he needs to hear. Yes, this is not standard, but with current methods allowing responder to describe huge numbers of hands with support, there needs to be a way for him to take control and keep it.
Someday I'm going to learn and start playing Spiral Scan. It'd make mincemeat of this deal.
|1NT|| ||3NT||All pass|
You get the opening lead of the
Plan the play.
[Later...] I'm not so sure about my line in 3NT. I think I get blocked out of my 9th trick even if the cards lie the way I was playing for. [Yup. Mike is the only one who realized this. --Jeff]
As the cards actually lay, playing a heart at T2 leads to
instant defeat. The opening lead was a falsecard; hearts
were 6-1. On the bidding, that seems pretty likely, no?
So West can win the third club and clear hearts. Then
even if he has the
I thought that hearts were 6-1 at the table, and I think
we have enough information to figure that out. Why is
West overcalling a single-suiter with
What's better? I'm not sure. Probably either hooking